If r = 0 then rn = 0 for all n ∈ IN. Obviously
This shows limn→∞ ax n = Lx. 19.3. Let 0 ≤ α < 1 and let f be a function from R → R which satisfies.
where R = 0 if the lim sup diverges to ∞ and R = ∞ if the lim sup is 0. Proof. Let r = lim sup n→∞.
The functions in Example 5.5 converge uniformly to 0 on R since.
Suppose that (fn) is a sequence of functions fn : A → R and f : A → R. Then fn → f uniformly on A if for every ϵ > 0
n→∞ xn+1 xn. = λ there exists n0 such that xn+1 xn. < r for all n ≥ n0. Hence
x = 0. 0 x = 0 for all x ∈ R. a. Show that h(n)(0) = 0 for all n ∈ N. b. Suppose x = 0. Show that the remainder term obtained by applying the Taylor's Theorem
converges for all x so R = ∞ for the power series ∑n≥0. (−1)n22n+1. (2n+1)! mainder Formula ((11) in Section 9.9) to show that limn→∞ rn(x) = 0 for all x ...
The inequality is false n = 2 3
17 nov. 2011 n k=1. 1 k the n-th harmonic number. Then limn??
Therefore lim
Furthermore f(t
(3) The probability measure P assigns a probability P(A) to every event. A ? F: P A real number between 0 and 1: A = [0 1]
Exercise 2. Let (Xn) be a sequence of i.i.d. N(01) random variables. Show that lim supn?? Xn/.
21 avr. 2008 A valuation on K is a function v : K ? R ? {?} satisfying these properties for all x
Show that if (fn)n?1 is a sequence of convex functions from I to R then x ? limsupn?? fn(x) is convex. In particular
T(x) = limn?? Tn(x). We now need to show that T ? B(VW). Well T is linear since each. Tn is linear. So let ? > 0 and choose N ? N such that for n
De?nition 3 1 liman = L if: given ? > 0 an ? ? L for n ? 1 Building this up in three succesive stages: (i) an ? ? L (an approximates L to within ?); (ii) an ? ? L for n ? 1 ³ the approximation holds for all an far enough out in the sequence; ´; (iii) given ? > 0 an ? ? L for n ? 1 (the approximation can be made as
n!1n Example2 2Ifsn= 0 for alln then limsn= 0 n!1 Proof Given any >0; letNbe any number Then we have > N=) jsnj= 0< ; because that's true for anyn Figure 2 2: Some values approach 0 but others don't Example2 3Why isn't the following a good de nition? " limsn= 0 means n!1 For all >0 there exists a positive integerN such that jsNj < :"
In other words if we nd N 2N such that for all n > N we have 1 n < "; then this will imply that for all n > N j2n+4 5n+2 2 5 j< " (Since we just explained that j2n+4 5n+2 2 5 j< 1 n ) The Archimedean Property gives us N 2N such that for all n > N we have 1 n < " So we are done Summarizing the discussion We want to prove 8" > 0; 9N 2N
n(0) = 0 for all n2N so f n!jxjpointwise on R Moreover f0 n (x) = x3 + 2x=n (x2 + 1=n)3=2! 8 >< >: 1 if x>0 0 if x= 0 1 if x
n! 0 uniformly on R but that the sequence of derivatives (h0 n ) diverges for every x2R. Proof. Given >0; Choose N2N such that
n(x) converges to f(x) = 0 uniformly, since taken >0;there exists N>2 , N2N such that for any nN;and for any x2R jf n(x) 0j 1 n jg(x)j 2 n 2 N f nis nowhere dierentiable for every n2N; but f(x) = 0 and hence is dierentiable everywhere. b)
If h0 n (x) ! g(x) is uniform in any interval containing 0 and also given each h0 n (x) is continuous at 0, implies g(x) should be continuous at x= 0;which is not the case. Hence the convergence is not uniform. Exercise 2 (6.3.4) Let h n(x) = sin(nx) p n Show that h n! 0 uniformly on R but that the sequence of derivatives (h0 n ) diverges for
Show g(x) = limh0 n (x) exists for all x, and explain how we can be certain that the convergence is not uniform on any neighborhood of zero. Proof. a) lim n!1 h