Problems and Solutions: INMO-2015
Problems and Solutions: INMO-2015. 1. Let ABC be a right-angled triangle with ZB = 90?. Let BD be the altitude from B on to AC.
Question Paper
UCEED 2015 Question Paper
NATIONAL ENTRANCE SCREENING TEST (NEST – 2015)
NATIONAL ENTRANCE SCREENING TEST (NEST – 2015) Please make sure that the question booklet code (A or B) matches with the OMR ... the plane of the paper.
CEED 2015 Question Paper
1. The examination is of 3 hours duration. The Question paper contains two parts PART A and. PART B. There are a total of 50 questions
IIT JEE Main 2015 Question Paper with Solutions
There are three parts in the question paper A B
Indian National Chemistry Olympiad 2015 Theory (3 hours)
Do not leave the examination room until you are directed to do so. • The question paper will be uploaded on the HBCSE website by 2 nd. February 2015.
???? isra - Recruitment Entrance Test for Scientist/Engineer SC 2015
02-Oct-2015 ICRB/Mechanical Engineering. October 2015. 3. 125 mm. 3. U COS. 275 mm. (b).
XAT 2015 Question Paper
XAT-2015. Test Booklet No. Name. XAT ID. Booklet Series: B. INSTRUCTIONS For example if your answer to question number 1 is 'B'
Regional Mathematical Olympiad 2015 (Mumbai region) 06
There are eight questions in this question paper. Answer all questions. • Each of the questions 12
CS (Main) Exam:2015
POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS (PAPER-I). Time Allowed : Three Hours. Maximum Marks : 250. QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS.
PAPER - 1 : PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use
of pencil is strictly prohibited.2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take
out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of, Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each
correct response.6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of each
question. 1/4 (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No
deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question
will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above.8. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/ marking responses on Side
1 and Side2
of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.9. No candidates is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.10. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is
given at the bottom of each page and in 3 pages (Pages 2123) at the end of the booklet.
11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in
the Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.12. The CODE for this Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side
2 of the Answer Sheet and
also tally the serial number of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet are the same as that on this booklet.
In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for
replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters) : ______________________________________________Roll Number : in figures
: in words ______________________________________________________________Examination Centre Number :
Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters) : ____________________________________________ _________________Test Booklet Code A
JEE-MAIN 2015 : Paper and Solution (2)
(Pg. 2)Read the following instructions carefully :
1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) with
Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
2. For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the
Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. Out of the four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer.
5. For each incorrect response, one-fourth (¼) of the total marks allotted to the question would be
deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response
is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy
in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), another set will be provided.7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All
calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself,
3 pages (Pages
21 23) at the end of the booklet.
8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in
the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed theAttendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with
as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet.12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone, pager etc. is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the JAB/Board with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the
JAB/Board.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager,
mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room. (3) VIDYALANKAR : JEE-MAIN 2015 : Paper and Solution (Pg. 3) .Questions and Solutions.PART- A : PHYSICS
1. Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of a cliff 240 m high with initial speed
of 10 m/s and 40 m/s respectively. Which of the following graph best represents the time
variation of relative position of the second stone with respect to the first? (Assume stones do not rebound after hitting the ground and neglect air resistance, take g = 10 m/s2). (The figures are schematic and not drawn to scale)
(1) (2) (3) (4)1. (3)
For the second stone time required to reach the ground is given by y = ut 21gt2240 = 40 t
21 10 t2
5t2 40 t 240 = 0
(t 12) (t + 8) = 0 t = 12 sFor the first stone :
240 = 10t
21 10 t2
240 = 10t 5t2
5t2 10t 240 = 0
(t 8) (t + 6) = 0T = 8s
During first 8 seconds both the stones are in air : y2 y1 = (u2 u1) t = 30 t graph of (y2 y1) against t is a straight line.After 8 seconds
y2 = u2t
21gt 2402
Stones two has acceleration with respect to stone one. Hence graph (3) is the correct description.JEE-MAIN 2015 : Paper and Solution (4)
(Pg. 4)2. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is T = L2g. Measured value of L is 20.0 cm
known to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 90 s using a wrist watch of 1s resolution. The accuracy in the determination of g is (1) 2 % (2) 3 % (3) 1 % (4) 5 %2. (2)
22LT4g
g = 2 2L4T g L T100 100 2 100g L T0.1 1100 2 10020 90 = 0.5 + 2.2 = 2.7 3.
3. Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are being pressed against a wall by a force F as shown. If the coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall is 0.15, the frictional force applied by the wall on block B is : (1) 100 N (2) 80 N (3) 120 N (4) 150 N
3. (3)
For Block A :
m1g = 1F
20 = 0.1 F
F =
200.1 = 200 N
Frictional force on block A in upward direction = 1F = 0.1 200 = 20 N Block A exert a frictional force of 20 N on block B in downward direction.For block B :
2F = m2g + 1F = 100 + 20 = 120 N
4. A particle of mass m moving in the x direction with speed 2v is hit by another particle of mass
2m moving in the y direction with speed v. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage
loss in the energy during the collision is close to : (1) 44 % (2) 50 % (3) 56 % (4) 62 %4. (3)
E 1 =2211m(2v) 2m.v22
221m.4v mv2
= 2mv2 + mv2
= 3 mv 2After Collision
3mV =
2.2mv V = 2 2 v 3 A B F 2 mV 3 mV 2 mV (5) VIDYALANKAR : JEE-MAIN 2015 : Paper and Solution (Pg. 5) E2 =21 2 2 v3m.23
23 8vm.29
= 24v3 E1 E2 =
2243v v3
229v 4v
3 = 25v3 12 1EE E = 2 25v33v = 5 9
Percentage loss =
51009= 55.6 56.
5. Distance of the centre of mass of a solid uniform cone from its vertex is z0. If the radius of its
base is R and its height is h the z0 is equal to :
(1) 2h 4R (2) 3h4 (3) 5h
8 (4)
23h8R
5. (2)
6. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R a cube of maximum possible volume is cut. Moment
of inertia of cube about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to one of its faces is :
(A) 2MR 32 2(2) 2MR 16 2 (3) 24MR
93
(4) 24MR
33
6. (3)
Figure alongside shows a solid sphere of mass M.
The radius of the sphere is R.
The volume of the sphere is
34VR3The density of the sphere is
33M M 3M
4 V4RR3 From this solid sphere a cube of maximum possible volume is cut.Therefore
2R 3a, where a is the length of the side of the cube of maximum volume
2Ra3Mass of the cube is
3333M 8RMa334R 2M
3The moment of inertia of the cube is
22a 2M 1 2RM6633 228MR 4MR
18 3 9 3
7. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R, a spherical portion of
radius R2 is removed, as shown in the figure. Taking gravitational
potential V = 0 at r = , the potential at the centre of the cavity thus formed is : (G = gravitational constant) (1) GM2R (2) GM
R (3) 2GM
3R (4) 2GM
R M 2R aJEE-MAIN 2015 : Paper and Solution (6)
(Pg. 6)7. (2)
Potential at internal point of solid
V = 22GM 3 r
R2 2R at r = R 2 V 1 = 22GM 3 R
R2 8R = 11 GM 8RBecause of sphere removed.
V 2 =MG3 3 GM8
R2 8 R
2Net potential, V = V1 + V2 =
11 GM 3 GM
8 R 8 R = GM
R8. A pendulum made of a uniform wire of cross sectional area A has time period T. When an
additional mass M is added to its bob, the time period changes to TM. If the Young's modulus of
the material of the wire is Y then 1Y is equal to :
(g = gravitational acceleration) (1) 2MTA1T Mg
(2) 2MTMg1TA
(3) 2MTA1T Mg
(3) 2 MTA 1T Mg8. (1)
T = 212M, T 2gg
T 2 =2 2 212M4 , T 4gg
2M2 21TT x
2M 2 2 1
211T11T
1 21MgA 221M
1T
1 A A1Mg Mg T
R (7) VIDYALANKAR : JEE-MAIN 2015 : Paper and Solution (Pg. 7)9. Consider a spherical shell of radius R at temperature T. The black body radiation inside it can be
considered as an ideal gas of photons with internal energy per unit volume u =4UTV and
pressure P = 1U 3V . If the shell now undergoes an adiabatic expansion the relation between T and R is : (1)RTe (2) 3RTe (3) 1TR (4) 31TR
9. (3)
41UP T3V
For an ideal gas PV = nRT
P = nR'TV (R molar gas constant)
4nR'TTV
3nR'TV
31TV3
31T4R3
T 3 3 1 R T 1 R10. A solid of constant heat capacity 1 J/°C is being heated by keeping it in contact with reservoirs in
two ways :(i) Sequentially keeping in contact with 2 reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies same
amount of heat.(ii) Sequentially keeping in contact with 8 reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies same
amount of heat. In both the cases body is brought from initial temperature 100°C to final temperature 200°C. Entropy change of the body in the two cases respectively is : (1) n2, 4 n2 (2) n2, n2 (3) n2, 2 n2 (4) 2 n2, 8 n210. (No option matches)
Entropy is a state function so depends on initial temperature and final temperature.Case I : s =
423 423
373 423dT dT 473
cnT T 373Case II : s =
385.5 398 473
373 385.5 460.5dT dT dT 473c ...... nT T T 373
Note : In the question temperatures are given in C, but should be taken in kelvin so no option matches.
JEE-MAIN 2015 : Paper and Solution (8)
(Pg. 8)11. Consider an ideal gas confined in an isolated closed chamber. As the gas undergoes an adiabatic
expansion, the average time of collision between molecules increases as V q, where V is the volume of the gas. The value of q is : p vC C (1) 356 (2) 35
6 (3) 1
2 (4) 1
211. (3)
Average time taken collisions
t = runsv = mean free path 21N2dV
N = Number of molecular
V = volumes
t = 2 2 1N2dMVV
3RT 2 N d 3R T
M t = VkT where k is a constant = 2M2 N d 3R
T 2 2V tFor adiabatic process
TV1 = constant
212VV constantt
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