[PDF] Language In Use Beginner Tests PDF Language%20In%20Use%20Beginner%20Tests.pdf

a written paper, covering grammar, vocabulary, reading and writing Key English Test (KET) answer vocabulary questions, and spell one or two words

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[PDF] Language In Use Beginner Tests

a written paper, covering grammar, vocabulary, reading and writing Key English Test (KET) answer vocabulary questions, and spell one or two words

Languageinuse

ADRIAN DOFF CHRISTOPHER JONES

Tests

BEGINNER

www.cambridge.org/elt/liu

Introductionpage 1

Progress test 12

Progress test 2 6

Progress test 310

Progress test 414

Summary test (written)18

Speaking test 122

Speaking test 223

Speaking test 324

Speaking test 425

Summary test (speaking)26

Answer key27

Marking guide: Written tests section H28

Marking guide: Speaking tests29

This booklet contains four Progress tests and one Summary test for the Language in Use Beginner course.

Each of the Progress tests covers six units in the Classroom Book. The Summary test is for use at the end of

the course, and makes use of material from all units. All five tests have the same format. There is an Answer

key and Marking guide on pages 30-31.

Each test has two components:

• a written paper, covering grammar, vocabulary, reading and writing. • an (optional) oral test, in which pairs of students speak to the examiner and to each other.

While the main aim is to help learners measure their progress as they go through Language in Use,both

written and oral tests also give practice in techniques needed for public examinations such as the Cambridge

Key English Test (KET).

The written component

This has eight sections. 70 marks are available.

Section A: Sentences (10 marks)

There are ten multiple choice gapped sentences (each with three options). The questions cover a range of

grammar and vocabulary.

Section B: Words (5 marks)

This is a matching task on a lexical group. Learners choose five answers from seven options.

Section C: Replies (5 marks)

There are five multiple choice questions (each with three options). Learners have to complete five separate

two-line exchanges.

Section D: Conversation (6 marks)

This is a matching task based on a short conversation. Learners choose six answers from eight options.

Section E: Gapped text (7 marks)

This is a three-option multiple choice cloze task. There are seven questions.

Section F: Reading (8 marks)

This is a reading comprehension task with eight multiple choice questions (each with three options).

Section G: Cloze (11 marks)

This is an open cloze task. Learners have to fill each gap with one suitable word. There are 11 gaps.

Section H: Writing (18 marks)

Three writing tasks. Students write short paragraphs (two or three sentences long) on a variety of topics.

Some of the content is usually specified. There are six marks for each paragraph.

Note: The test takes 70 minutes. If this is longer than you have available, it can be given in two parts:

•Sections A-F, on the first three pages (the more receptive part of the test): 45 minutes. •Sections G-H, on the final page (the more productive part of the test): 25 minutes.

The oral component

This component is optional. Two students take the test at a time together with an examiner. The test has two

sections, and takes around 7-8 minutes. 20 marks are available.

Section A: Examiner-Student (10 marks)

In this section, the examiner asks the two students questions in turn. Each student has to: - answer vocabulary questions, and spell one or two words. - answer one or two questions on a topic concerning their own lives. - talk briefly about a topic given by the examiner (three or four sentences).

Section B: Student-Student (10 marks)

In this section, the students talk to each other, using prompt cards. There are two kinds of activity:

eitherA asks B questions about him- or herself. B answers the questions. orA asks B questions about e.g. a shop, a party. B answers using information on the prompt card.

Two sets of prompt cards are used during each test, giving both students an opportunity to ask questions and

answer them.

Introduction

PHOTOCOPIABLE © Cambridge University Press 2000

Test 1: Units 1-62

Section A(10 marks)

Choose the best answer, A, B or C. The first one is an example.

0......................... is your name?

AHowBWhoCWhat ..........

1......................... old are you?

AHowBWhoCWhat ..........

2Where ......................... ?

Ayou fromByou are fromCare you from ..........

3My flat only has two rooms - it's very ......................... .

AsmallBbigClarge ..........

4There aren't ......................... windows in this room.

AaBanyCsome ..........

5Who's ......................... man over there? Is he a policeman?

AthisBthatCthose ..........

6How many students ......................... in your class?

Athere isBthere areCare there ..........

7There are lots of ......................... here.

AtouristBtouristsCtourist's ..........

8My jackets are in the ......................... in my bedroom.

AcupboardBfridgeCcooker ..........

9It's my mother's birthday today. She's ......................... .

AfourteenBfourthCforty ..........

10......................... is my favourite city.

AEnglandBEnglishCLondon ..........

Section B(5 marks)

Look at the picture and imagine the colours. Choose the best colours (A-H) to complete each sentence.

The first one is an example.

0The cloud is .......... .

1The sun is .......... .

2The sky is .......... .

3The grass and trees are .......... .

4The zebra is .......... and .......... .

Ablack

Bblue

Cgreen

Dgrey Epink Fred

Gwhite

Hyellow

Progress test 1: Units 1-6

Time allowed: 70 minutes.

Answer all the questions.

Write your answers on this paper.

Please do not write in this box.

Section A B C D E F G H Total

Score NAME: sun grass treeszebra sky cloud PHOTOCOPIABLE © Cambridge University Press 2000

Test 1: Units 1-63

Section C(5 marks)

Complete the five conversations.

Choose A, B or C.

1Is this your umbrella?AYes, they are.

BThat's true.

..........CNo, it isn't.

2Can I have some juice, please?AYes, of course.

BThank you.

..........COh, really?

3Tom - this is my friend Lisa.AWhat's her name?

BI don't know.

..........CHi. How are you?

4Here's a present for you - happy birthday!APlease.

BThank you.

..........CThat's all right.

5What's your address?A402 1071.

B5, Market Street.

..........CMr and Mrs Brown.

Section D(6 marks)

Complete this conversation at a party. What does Mike say to Jill? Choose the correct letter A-I from the box. The first one has been done for you.

Jill: Hello. Who are you?

Mike:0

Jill: And I'm Jill. Where are you from, Mike?

Mike:1................

Jill: Me too. And are you married?

Mike:2................

Jill: Do you have any children?

Mike:3................

Jill: Really? How old are they?

Mike:4................

Jill: And where's your wife now? At home

with the children?

Mike:5................

Jill: But that's Dolores Mitchell!

Mike:6................

Jill: Oh! So you're married to Dolores Mitchell ...

AI'm from London.

BAre you Dolores Mitchell?

COh, hi. I'm Mike.

DNo, she's here, actually - that's her, over there.

EYes, we have two - a girl and a boy.

FYes. Yes, I am.

GOh, sorry.

HThat's right. And I'm Mike Mitchell.

IThe girl's three, and the boy is just a baby.

EXAMPLE

ANSWER: C

How are you?

AI'm 18.

BI'm Peter.

CI'm fine.

Test 1: Units 1-64

Section E(7 marks)

Read the text, and choose the best words to fill the gaps. The first one has been done for you.

Section F(8 marks)

Read the information about three hotels, and answer the questions. Which hotel are the people staying at? Write Plaza,

Parkor Roxy. The first question has been done for you. Park

0'There isn't a lift in our hotel.' ............

1'We have a balcony, but it isn't very big.' ............

2'Our room has a TV, but not a radio.' ............

3'The hotel's near all the big shops.' ............

4'The restaurants in our hotel are very good.' ............

5'The rooms are very large.' ............

6'Our room is on the sixth floor.' ............

7'There isn't a toilet or a shower in our room.' ............

8'The hotel's by the sea.' ............

THEPLAZAHOTEL

The Plaza Hotel is right on the

beach. All rooms have their own bathroom, phone and TV.

They also have a large bed, a

sofa and two armchairs, and a large balcony. There are 60 rooms on five floors, and four lifts. The hotel has three restaurants and two swimming pools.

THEPARKHOTEL

The Park Hotel is in the city

centre. It has 25 rooms on four floors. There isn't a lift. The rooms are small, but they have big windows, and there is a desk and chair, and a radio.

There are two bathrooms on

every floor, and there's a TV room next to the restaurant, on the ground floor.

THEROXYHOTEL

The Roxy Hotel is near the

airport, about 10 km from the city. It has 120 rooms on seven floors, and six lifts. There's a restaurant and a swimming pool. The rooms aren't very large, but all have bathrooms, and some rooms have small balconies. There is a phone,

TV and radio in every room.

0Aisn't Baren'tCam not

1Awoman BwomansCwomen

2Amother BfatherCparents

3Abrothers BsistersCparents

4Ahusband BhusbandsChusband's

5Achildren BbabiesCsons

6Achild BbabyCson

7Ahis BherCits

There .........0......... many men in my family, but there are lots of .........

1......... . My .........2.........

have three daughters - me (my name's Jenny), and my two .........

3......... Barbara and Jo. Barbara

and Jo aren't married, but I am. My .........

4.........

name is Bob. We have five .........

5........ - and

they're all girls! And my oldest daughter Liz has a

6........ girl. She's just one year old, and

7........ name's Anna.

Test 1: Units 1-65

Section G(11 marks)

Look at the picture and complete

the sentences. Write ONE word in each gap. The first one has been done for you.

Section H(18 marks)

1 Write two or three sentences about a friend. Use the ideas in the box to help you.

quotesdbs_dbs5.pdfusesText_10

[PDF] [PDF] Language In Use Beginner Tests

Languageinuse

ADRIAN DOFF CHRISTOPHER JONES

BEGINNER

Contents

Introductionpage 1

Progress test 12

Progress test 2 6

Progress test 310

Progress test 414

Summary test (written)18

Speaking test 122

Speaking test 223

Speaking test 324

Speaking test 425

Summary test (speaking)26

Answer key27

Marking guide: Written tests section H28

Marking guide: Speaking tests29

Each test has two components:

Key English Test (KET).

The written component

This has eight sections. 70 marks are available.

Section A: Sentences (10 marks)

Section B: Words (5 marks)

Section C: Replies (5 marks)

Section D: Conversation (6 marks)

Section E: Gapped text (7 marks)

Section F: Reading (8 marks)

Section G: Cloze (11 marks)

Section H: Writing (18 marks)

The oral component

Section A: Examiner-Student (10 marks)

Section B: Student-Student (10 marks)

Introduction

Test 1: Units 1-62

Section A(10 marks)

0......................... is your name?

AHowBWhoCWhat ..........

1......................... old are you?

AHowBWhoCWhat ..........

2Where ......................... ?

Ayou fromByou are fromCare you from ..........

3My flat only has two rooms - it's very ......................... .

AsmallBbigClarge ..........

4There aren't ......................... windows in this room.

AaBanyCsome ..........

5Who's ......................... man over there? Is he a policeman?

AthisBthatCthose ..........

6How many students ......................... in your class?

Athere isBthere areCare there ..........

7There are lots of ......................... here.

AtouristBtouristsCtourist's ..........

8My jackets are in the ......................... in my bedroom.

AcupboardBfridgeCcooker ..........

9It's my mother's birthday today. She's ......................... .

AfourteenBfourthCforty ..........

10......................... is my favourite city.

AEnglandBEnglishCLondon ..........

Section B(5 marks)

The first one is an example.

0The cloud is .......... .

1The sun is .......... .

2The sky is .......... .

3The grass and trees are .......... .

4The zebra is .......... and .......... .

Ablack

Cgreen

Gwhite

Hyellow

Progress test 1: Units 1-6

Time allowed: 70 minutes.

Answer all the questions.

Write your answers on this paper.

Please do not write in this box.

Section A B C D E F G H Total

Test 1: Units 1-63

Section C(5 marks)

Complete the five conversations.

Choose A, B or C.